"Congress shall make no law...abridging the freedom of speech, or of the
press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to
petition the Government for a redress of grievances." -- The First
Amendment
Restrictions on freedom of speech always authorise the
government to decide how, and against whom, the restrictions should
apply. The more authority the government has, the more it will use that
authority to suppress unpopular minorities, criticism and dissent.
Because freedom of expression is so basic to a free society, it should
'never' be abridged by the government.
Let’s start with some
case law:
Free speech issues did not reach SCOTUS until
1919. That year, the Court dealt with free speech for the first time in
the case of
Schenck v. United States, 249 U.S. 47 (1919).
Schenck, a member of the Socialist Party, had been convicted of
violating the Espionage Act for mailing anti-war leaflets to draft-age
men during WWI. SCOTUS unanimously upheld his conviction.
The
prevailing legal view at the time was that any speech that had a
"tendency" to cause a violation of law could be punished.
The
'Schenck' case was quickly followed by others that ended in decisions
equally contemptuous of First Amendment freedoms. Among them was the
case of Jacob Abrams,
Abrams v. United States, 250 U.S. 616,
convicted under the Sedition Act of 1918 (which was repealed in 1920)
for distributing leaflets that criticized the American military.
However,
even though SCOTUS upheld Abrams' conviction, the decision in his case
was a watershed: Justices Oliver Wendell Holmes and Louis D. Brandeis
dissented, stating that speech could not be punished unless it presented
"a clear and present danger" of imminent harm. The
Holmes-Brandeis dissent marked the beginning of modern First Amendment
theory.
SCOTUS declared the inviolability of First Amendment
rights for the first time in 1925 in
Gitlow v. New York, 268
U.S. 652 (1925), a case that challenged the conviction of a communist
revolutionary under New York's Criminal Anarchy law.
Although
the Court affirmed the conviction, it announced that freedom of speech
and press were protected by the First Amendment from federal
encroachment, and "are among the fundamental personal rights and
'liberties' protected by the states." This holding
paved the way for the Court in
Stromberg v. California, 283
U.S. 359 (1931), to rule that
States cannot infringe on the First
Amendment right to freedom of speech and expression.
Finally,
the Court ruled, in
Brandenburg v. Ohio, 395 U.S. 444 (1969),
that
“mere advocacy of the use of force, or of violation of law
(in this case, by a Ku Klux Klan leader) is protected by the First
Amendment free speech clause. Only inciting others to take direct and
immediate unlawful action would be without constitutional protection.
The 'Brandenberg' test is the law today.
Can free
speech be limited in any way? Yes.
The government may
place "time, place and manner" restrictions on speech as long as they
are "reasonable." For example, requiring people to obtain a permit
to hold a meeting in a public building, or to conduct a demonstration
that may interfere with traffic, constitutes a justifiable regulation.
You can read the plethora of case law on TPM restrictions here:
http://www.firstamendmentcenter.org/faclibrary/libraryexpression.aspx?topic=time_place_manner
But restrictions that are overly burdensome or are directed at
specific groups or individuals (see: KKK, Nazi groups, or think Phelps)
violate the First Amendment. For example, during the
1960s, officials in Southern cities frequently required civil rights
activists to apply for permits in order to hold demonstrations, and then
granted or denied the permits arbitrarily.
Shuttlesworth v.
Birmingham, 394 U.S. 147 (1969), is an excellent case to read to
understand what fact pattern can cause licencing schemes to be ruled
unconstitutional.
Are any forms of expression not protected
by the First Amendment? Yes.
SCOTUS has established
several limited exceptions to the First Amendment's protections. Here
are a couple to consider:
FIGHTING WORDS:
In the 1942
case of
Chaplinsky v. New Hampshire, 315 U.S. 568 (1942),
SCOTUS held that so-called
"fighting words...which by their very
utterance inflict injury or tend to incite an immediate breach of the
peace" are not protected by the First Amendment and can be punished. The
Court based its decision on the concept that such utterances are of
"slight social value as a step to truth." While many
may see
Snyder v. Phelps as a case open to the Fighting Words
Doctrine, such is not the case due to the fact pattern. (Also, see discussion below)
SLANDER, LIBEL, INTENTIONAL INFLICTION OF EMOTIONAL DISTRESS:
In
New York Times Co. v. Sullivan, 376 U.S. 254 (1964), the Court
held
“the First Amendment, as applied through the Fourteenth,
protected a newspaper from being sued for libel in state court for
making false defamatory statements about the official conduct of a
public official, because the statements were not made with knowing or
reckless disregard for the truth.”
In
Hustler Magazine v. Falwell, 485 U.S. 46 (1988), a public figure
shown in a parody must show actual malice to claim he is libeled to
prove a case of intentional infliction of emotional distress.
Held: Parodies of public figures, which could not reasonably be taken as true,
are protected against civil liability by the First Amendment, even if
intended to cause emotional distress.
In
Gertz v. Robert Welch, Inc., 418 U.S. 323 (1974), the Court held
that
“the First Amendment permits states to formulate their own
standards of libel for defamatory statements made about private figures,
as long as liability is not imposed without fault.”
In
Dun & Bradstreet, Inc. v. Greenmoss Builders, Inc., 472
U.S. 749 (1985), the Court held that
“an individual or group can
be held civilly liable for ordinary and punitive damages for publishing
false assertions about another individual or group, which is not a
public figure.” Dun & Bradstreet does stand for
the proposition that “context” must be considered. But, “context” must
also be within outrageous and personal conduct.
Let’s
look at the actual facts in Snyder v. Phelps :
The
hideous Phelps family did secure the requisite permits to protest the
funeral. The police were well aware that they were there and had
insured that the protesters stood outside of the barrier as proscribed
in Maryland’s TPM restrictions. No signs were directed, specifically,
at Matthew Snyder. In fact, the clan used the same signs that very day
in 2 other protests: In Annapolis and at the State Capitol.
The most important facts to keep in mind:
1. The Snyder
family did
NOT personally see the Phelps family or their signs before,
during, or after the funeral. They were told about the protesters’
presence afterward at a family gathering.
2. At the family
gathering, the family was told that the Phelps protesters had posted an
“Epic” on the internet depicting their protest at the funeral. The
Snyder family
ELECTED to view the “Epic” on the internet.
3.
Petitioner
ADMITTED that the Phelps family did not violate
Maryland’s TPM restrictions nor did it violate any other criminal
statutes, including the State’s funeral protest law that was passed
subsequent to the Snyder funeral.
4. None of the signs were
directed, specifically, to Matthew Snyder or the Snyder family. As
Justice Alito recognised in argument,
the “You” in the signs and
in the Epic was generic in nature and not directed at any individual
or group. It is crucial to bear in mind that not one
sign named Snyder. All signs were to the effect: “God Hates F@gs!”
(generic and plural), “Get Out Of Iraq!” (political), “God Hates You!”
(non-specific), “You’re Going To Hell! (generic), etc.
5. Mr
Summers, counsel for the Petitioner, Albert Snyder, argued that neither
Sullivan nor
Falwell applied because Matthew Snyder was not
a public figure (true, but the estate of a decedent cannot sue for
defamation).
ISSUES:
1. Can a person or group
put anything on the internet?
Mo: Yes, but not without the
possibility of liability. One cannot post copyrighted material. One
can also not post defamatory statements directed specifically at private
individuals. If I post an article that claims, for example, that my
neighbour, John Adams, has been embezzling funds from the Co-op Building
Fund and such are untrue, I can be sued for defamation. On the other
hand, if I post an article that claims, for example, that Obama has sent
stimulus funds to a personal offshore bank account and such are untrue,
it is highly unlikely that I cannot be sued because he is a public
official and he must prove that I posted information that I knew to be
false and did so maliciously. An opinion is not defamation – for either
private or public persons. If my opinion is that you are fat and I say
so, I have not defamed you. You may be hurt, but you have no cause of
action. This is even more the case for public figures.
2. Can a
person put anything on television, even if it is obnoxious, about a
private individual?
Mo: See #1.
3. Does it make a
difference if the public comments about political issues are directed to
public or private individuals?
Mo: I argue “No.” If I
approach a returning soldier and accuse him of participating in an
“illegal war” and say that soldiers are “baby killers”, while such
behaviour would be despicable, it is permissible and because it is my
opinion on a political issue and such matters not whether directed at
Obama or G.I. Joe. (Mo: I am not applauding such. Just arguing the
law.)
On the other hand, the late John Murtha's claims that
SPECIFIC soldiers were murderers WAS ALMOST CERTAINLY DEFAMATION, as the
facts of the case did not support his statement.
4. To what
extent, can a political opinion on a public issue (homosexuality, war,
etc.) become the intentional infliction of emotional distress when it is
directed at private individuals?
Mo: If my statement is “God
Hates F@gs!” and is generic, even if directed at an individual, I do not
believe that such can be proscribed by the government or give rise to a
tort.
Also, this would create a VERY SLIPPERY SLOPE. What if I say “Mohammed was a pervert and all of his followers
are hated by the ‘real’ God”? Should the government be able to censor
such? No. Should Muslims be able to sue me for intentional infliction
of emotional distress? No.
5. Can there be intentional
infliction of emotional distress when an individual makes an obnoxious,
but generic statement, about another individual or group (soldiers) in
an effort to raise public consciousness?
Mo: No.
6. And,
most importantly, under what theory of the First Amendment stand for the
proposition that public speech or speech on a public or political matter
be treated differently depending upon the recipient of the speech?
Mo:
There is no First Amendment theory to support such. Where the public speech is on a public or political matter, there can
be no intentional infliction of emotional distress. It is free speech
and is protected. It cannot matter who receives or hears the speech.
If I am standing in Central Park and speaking out against the war or
homosexuality and the parent on a dead soldier or a homosexual hears me,
there is no INTENTIONAL INFLICTION OF EMOTIONAL DISTRESS. (There are
cases in Britain that criminalise speech against gays, so be careful).
On the other hand, TPM restrictions can be imposed that would proscribe
my speech inside of a funeral service, for example. Those are legal.
The
Phelps family is disgusting. It should be shunned. Its protests
should be met with larger protests. That said, hate speech should never
be recognised as a crime or tort. To do so, would eventually result in
the government deciding what citizens may or may not say. Do not
forget: The government once held this power and it was less than a
century ago.
I encourage you all to either listen to the oral
arguments
here.
Update: On 2 March 2011, the Supreme Court ruled 8-1 (Justice Alito dissented) in favour of Westboro Baptist Church although I would like to see it as they stood up for the First Amendment. You can read the decision
here.